RED SYMPHONY EXPLAINED

At first it may appear that the confession of Christian Rakovsky during the Moscow Trials may contradict the Albert Pike three world war plan, because Rakovsky states that Trotsky was one of "them", that Trotsky was supposed to takeover the USSR, and that WW1 was supposed to end with Germany controlled by Communism. But Lenin siezed control and pushed for a ceasefire with Germany, which Trotsky at first opposed but begrudgingly accepted after it became obvious that Russia was too weak to continue fighting.

Rakovsky proposed that Stalin should enter into an agreement with Hitler to divide Poland, so that their creation Hitler, who had become troublesome by printing his own money, would venture west to be destroyed by the west. But a consequence of the resulting Molotov-Ribbentrop Pact was a trade agreement between the Nazis and the Soviets! The Nazis gave the USSR military technology and in return got natural and mineral resources from the USSR!

However look at what happened. Yes, Hitler went west into France, but he did not continue west into Spain due to Franco and his services to anti-Communism during the Spanish Civil War. But the west did not intervene to save France! So Hitler had to go North into Scandinavia, which he did, South into Africa, which he did, or...EAST INTO THE USSR.

Hitler had always been writing and talking about invading Russia for living room and to crush the untermenschen, which made him very attractive to "them", and as Rakovsky stated "they" created Hitler to contain Stalin.

Rakovsky stated that Trotsky was supposed to take control of the Russian Revolution and continue it into Germany, but Lenin got in the way and made peace with Germany at Brest-Litovsk. However, Rakovsky does not address Zionism and the theft of Palestine! Not once!

I propose that whoever made the decision, perhaps there was an internal factional disagreement, tried to amend Pike's original plan of simply establishing Communism in Russia and holding position, maybe to show off, maybe to impress their masters with their intellectual and organisational prowess. Who knows? But as soon as Stalin took control instead of Trotsky, as Rakovsky said "they" had planned, they tried to get back to Pike's original plan asap, and did so in about 1942ish, realising Pike's evil genius (for even though he was evil we have to accept Pike was also very clever and may well have realised that any Communist takeover of Russia as per his plan would result in peace between Russia and whoever it was fighting simply because the fighting and working Russian proletariat would at the time be sick and exhausted of fighting and would want to consolidate before continuing the revolution).

There are one or two minor points to argue, such as why did Morgan finance fascist Mussolini to the tune of $100 million dollars in 1925? This could be explained by Trotsky not immediately taking control of the USSR after Lenin's murder in 1924, and "they" realised they needed an anti-Communist movement in Europe to contain Stalin, who at the time of the loan was looking more and more like taking overt control of the USSR due to Trotsky's illness.

But Rakovsky's testimony, the subsequent surprise Molotov-Ribbentrop Pact and non-declaration of war on the USSR invading Poland cannot be dismissed and must be taken as truth. The resulting trade agreement between Nazi Germany and the USSR also allowed Hitler to gain more natural resources for him to prosecute war, but the pact gave Stalin time to almost double the size of his military, and the trade agreement gave the USSR time to gain more military technology and hardware. If Hitler had continued into the USSR after Poland in 1939, would the USSR have survived? We don't know. If not then the plan would have been destroyed. Due to their mistrust of Stalin perhaps "they" had not armed Stalin as much as they should have? So maybe Rakovsky was tricking Stalin into supplying Hitler so Hitler was more confident of prosecuting a long war, but at the same time giving the USSR time to empower itself further to repel any probable invasion by Hitler?

And it is also of great relevance that Pearl Harbour was allowed to happen AFTER Hitler had invaded the USSR. With the USA occupying Japan in the Pacific Japan could not seriously attack the USSR, thus allowing the USSR to concentrate on repelling the invasion of Hitler.

Stalin killed Trotsky in 1940. Hitler invaded the USSR in June 1941. The USA provoked Japan into attacking Pearl Harbour in December 1941. Maybe these three events are linked, one a reaction to the previous event?

This is what is so great, interesting and exciting about history, and is probably why I was not taught this history at school. I was instead taught boring irrelevant crap!

It is significant that events after 1940 seem to have followed Pike's plan very closely, while events between WW1 and WW2 were not as simple and straightforward as I first thought. But the above suggestion that a faction tried a slightly different way to that proposed by Pike (for they still stole Palestine to empower Zionism) in the first phase and it did not go according to their plan showed to them the evil genius of Pike so they quickly moved to implement Pike's version asap explains in some way the discrepancy between the two versions of events.

I shall be developing this further.