David Icke suggests that the bloodlines moved from Venice to London for ley lines.
But apparently there are no ley lines through Venice, and not through Rome either.
However, the bloodlines did move from Venice to London because of The League of Cambrai.
So why did Icke make his suggestion?
If the bloodlines moved to Rome then Venice, why did they do so if it wasn't because of ley lines, yet they allegedly did so in their move to London?
Please Icke-splain (don't hold your breath).
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